anonymous question (paid in the amount of 0.00005btc)

Language is one of the most vivid examples of what Hayek called spontaneous orders. There is no reptilian from the Austro-Hungarian General Staff who could invent a language from scratch for a vast number of people, irradiate them with invisible radiation so that they would acquire this language, and then confidently assert which word forms are true and which are a vile deviation from the norm associated with the shielding properties of a tin foil hat.

I have already spoken about language in quite some detail while answering a question about Esperanto, so I will end the introductory part here and move on to a short answer to the actual question asked.

Of course, a libertarian can be a grammar Nazi. Within their sphere of influence, they can insist on as strict communication standards as they wish, as long as this does not involve the use of violence. you wll udnerstnd me evn if i am strnogly deviatng fr om th stndard, but you will need to exert some additional effort to understand this, therefore the market dictates that I orient myself toward current linguistic norms, which in most cases correspond to dictionary norms. Again, the language in which I write is largely the same language in which I read. Were I fascinated by the poetry of the Tang dynasty, you would certainly feel that influence in the language of my posts. Thus, a grammar Nazi can be understood: he wishes to read in a language that is pleasant to him and provides feedback to his circle of communication. If he does this tactfully enough, and the influence of his authority is great, many will even be grateful to him for this activity in implementing the linguistic norm.

Let us praise the tireless fighters against entropy, for their cause is as noble as it is hopeless, while we ourselves shall speak as we find convenient, ramin!